Nursing Elites

1. A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, “It just doesn’t seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Why do you think your life is not worth it anymore?
• B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
• C. I need to know what you mean by misery
• D. You can trust me and tell me what you’re thinking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.

2. A nurse receives a report from an assistive personnel that a client's BP is 160/95. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Recheck the client's BP
• C. Document the findings
• D. Administer antihypertensive medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to recheck the client's BP. It is essential for the nurse to verify the accuracy of the initial reading by reassessing the blood pressure. Notifying the healthcare provider or administering antihypertensive medication should only occur after confirming the elevated blood pressure through a recheck. Documenting the findings is important but should follow the confirmation of the BP reading.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Rectus femoris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

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