Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?

• A. Estrogen causes increased appetite
• B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the cardiac sphincter allowing acid to reflux
• C. HCG hormone leads to increased gastric acidity
• D. The uterus compresses the stomach early in pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the smooth muscles in the body, including the cardiac sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid to reflux into the esophagus, leading to heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the physiological mechanism that causes heartburn during pregnancy. Estrogen causing increased appetite (Choice A) is not directly linked to heartburn. HCG hormone increasing gastric acidity (Choice C) is not the primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy. The uterus compressing the stomach early in pregnancy (Choice D) may contribute to feelings of fullness or bloating but is not the main cause of heartburn.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

3. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
• B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
• C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
• D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.

4. What is the nurse's next action after a laboring client's membranes have just ruptured?

• A. Assess fetal heart rate pattern
• B. Monitor uterine contractions
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a laboring client's membranes have ruptured, the nurse's immediate priority is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This assessment is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress, especially to rule out umbilical cord compression that could affect blood flow to the fetus. While monitoring uterine contractions is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence in this situation as it directly reflects the fetus's well-being. Administering oxygen may be necessary later depending on the fetal status, and preparing for delivery should only occur if the assessment indicates fetal distress or other complications. Therefore, the correct next action for the nurse is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

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