Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

• A. Abruptio placentae
• B. Hydatidiform mole
• C. Preterm labor
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
• B. Nasal flaring
• C. Heart rate 158/min
• D. One void since birth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

• A. Abnormal mouth movements
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Constipation
• C. Infusion reaction
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

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