Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a circumcised newborn. To prevent diaper adherence to the penis, what will be recommended to apply during diaper changes?

• A. Baby oil
• B. Antibiotic ointment
• C. Petroleum jelly
• D. Alcohol wipes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petroleum jelly is recommended to prevent the diaper from sticking to the circumcised area, reducing irritation and promoting healing. It should be applied during every diaper change until the site heals. Baby oil (Choice A) is not recommended as it may not provide a sufficient barrier to prevent adherence. Antibiotic ointment (Choice B) is not typically used for this purpose and can sometimes cause irritation. Alcohol wipes (Choice D) are too harsh for the sensitive skin of a newborn and can cause irritation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place several pillows behind the client’s head
• B. Place the client in a Sims' position
• C. Keep the client’s neck in a midline position
• D. Maintain flexion of the client’s hips at a 90° angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client’s neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client’s head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson’s disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to eat thin liquids
• B. Instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing
• C. Give the client large pieces of food
• D. Have the client lie down after meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson’s disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson’s disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?

• A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
• B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
• C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
• D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.

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