a nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a circumcised newborn to prevent diaper adherence to the penis what will be recommended to a
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a circumcised newborn. To prevent diaper adherence to the penis, what will be recommended to apply during diaper changes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petroleum jelly is recommended to prevent the diaper from sticking to the circumcised area, reducing irritation and promoting healing. It should be applied during every diaper change until the site heals. Baby oil (Choice A) is not recommended as it may not provide a sufficient barrier to prevent adherence. Antibiotic ointment (Choice B) is not typically used for this purpose and can sometimes cause irritation. Alcohol wipes (Choice D) are too harsh for the sensitive skin of a newborn and can cause irritation.

2. A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.

3. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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