ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- B. Take the medication with food
- C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
- A. Low potassium diet
- B. High fiber diet
- C. Low fat diet
- D. Low sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
3. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV diltiazem for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem can cause further lowering of blood pressure, so it should not be administered if the client is already hypotensive. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial before giving diltiazem. Choice B, tachycardia, is not a contraindication for diltiazem use; in fact, diltiazem is used to slow down the heart rate. Choice C, decreased level of consciousness, may indicate other issues but is not a direct contraindication for diltiazem. Choice D, history of diuretic use, is not a contraindication by itself; however, caution should be exercised when diltiazem is given with diuretics due to potential interactions.
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Potassium levels
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.
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