ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- B. Take the medication with food
- C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV diltiazem for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem can cause further lowering of blood pressure, so it should not be administered if the client is already hypotensive. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial before giving diltiazem. Choice B, tachycardia, is not a contraindication for diltiazem use; in fact, diltiazem is used to slow down the heart rate. Choice C, decreased level of consciousness, may indicate other issues but is not a direct contraindication for diltiazem. Choice D, history of diuretic use, is not a contraindication by itself; however, caution should be exercised when diltiazem is given with diuretics due to potential interactions.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an antihistamine prior to transfusion.
- B. Check the client’s vital signs.
- C. Verify the client’s identification with another nurse.
- D. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client’s identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client’s vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client’s identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
5. A nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn how to care for their child's uncircumcised penis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Retract the foreskin gently without force.
- B. Use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin.
- C. Apply petroleum jelly to the foreskin.
- D. Wash the penis once a day with soap and water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to wash the penis once a day with soap and water. It is important to advise against forcefully retracting the foreskin as it can cause pain and injury. Using a cotton swab is not recommended as it can introduce foreign particles, and applying petroleum jelly is unnecessary and may lead to issues. Washing with soap and water is sufficient for hygiene without the need for additional products or manipulation of the foreskin.
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