ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Isometric exercises
- C. Circumduction exercises
- D. Uterine extension exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.
2. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?
- A. Low self-esteem
- B. Family history of addiction
- C. Personality disorders
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.
3. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
4. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is a pain reliever
- B. Monitor for signs of infection
- C. It can be taken without food
- D. It is safe to use during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.
5. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
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