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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Isometric exercises
- C. Circumduction exercises
- D. Uterine extension exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.
2. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?
- A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
- B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
- C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
- D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
- B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
- C. Take sucralfate with food.
- D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Pale skin.' Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, which affects the skin color. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a paler complexion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Increased energy' is not typically associated with anemia, as fatigue is a common symptom. 'Elevated blood pressure' is not a typical finding in anemia; instead, anemia may cause hypotension. 'Weight gain' is not a direct symptom of anemia; in fact, weight loss may occur in some cases due to reduced appetite or other factors associated with anemia.
5. A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. My family can make decisions if I am unable to.
- B. I have a living will that outlines my wishes when I am unable to make a decision.
- C. I can write down my wishes, but they aren't legally binding.
- D. I don't need to worry about this until I’m critically ill.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.
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