Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
• B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
• C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
• D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.

3. What can cause a low pulse oximetry reading?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Increased hemoglobin level
• C. Inadequate peripheral circulation
• D. Low altitudes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inadequate peripheral circulation can cause a low pulse oximetry reading by limiting blood flow to the area being measured, leading to inaccurate oxygen saturation readings. Hyperthermia (choice A) is an elevated body temperature and does not directly affect pulse oximetry readings. An increased hemoglobin level (choice B) would actually lead to higher oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in normal or increased pulse oximetry readings. Low altitudes (choice D) typically do not cause low pulse oximetry readings unless there are other underlying conditions affecting oxygen levels.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause drowsiness
• B. It should be taken with food
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. It is safe during pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding, so clients should be monitored for this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is not typically associated with causing drowsiness. Choice B is not a specific consideration for aspirin use; it is not necessary to take it with food. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin is not considered safe during pregnancy and should be avoided, especially in the third trimester, as it may cause complications for the mother and the baby.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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