Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
• B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
• C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
• D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

2. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

• A. Scaly and red
• B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
• C. Firm and rubbery
• D. Brown with a wart-like texture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

• A. Gravida 3, Para 2
• B. Gravida 3, Para 3
• C. Gravida 4, Para 2
• D. Gravida 4, Para 3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic.
• B. Check the client’s bowel sounds.
• C. Slow the rate of the feeding.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased temperature
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

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