ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Fried chicken
- B. Oatmeal
- C. Bacon
- D. Whole milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps lower cholesterol levels, making it a heart-healthy food option for clients at risk for cardiovascular disease. Fried chicken, bacon, and whole milk are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can increase the risk of heart disease and should be limited in the diet of individuals at risk for cardiovascular issues.
2. A client with mild persistent asthma is being taught about montelukast by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will use this for asthma attacks.
- B. I should take this before exercise.
- C. This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.
- D. I can stop this medication after 10 days.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that works by reducing swelling and mucus production in the airways, helping to manage asthma symptoms in the long term. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because montelukast is not used for immediate relief during asthma attacks, pre-exercise prophylaxis, or short-term treatment; instead, it is taken regularly for asthma control.
3. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?
- A. Check potassium levels
- B. Assess blood glucose levels
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Administer with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.
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