Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Liver function
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a reddish-orange color.
• B. You should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months.
• C. You should avoid eating dairy products while on this medication.
• D. This medication can cause sensitivity to sunlight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

5. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

• A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
• B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
• C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

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