a nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.

3. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

4. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

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