Nursing Elites

1. A newborn demonstrates respiratory distress, and routine suctioning with the bulb syringe is unsuccessful. What is the next nursing intervention?

• A. Initiate chest compressions
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Suction with a mechanical device
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When routine suctioning with a bulb syringe is unsuccessful in a newborn demonstrating respiratory distress, the next appropriate nursing intervention is to suction with a mechanical device. This method ensures effective removal of any airway obstruction. Initiating chest compressions (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the primary concern is airway clearance. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, but addressing the airway obstruction should take precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be considered after attempting mechanical suction if the newborn's condition does not improve.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.”
• B. “Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.”
• C. “Take the medication with a high-protein food.”
• D. “Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is supervising an LPN who is providing care to a patient who is postoperative. Which of the following statements by the patient requires the nurse to follow up with the LPN?

• A. “I am experiencing some pain, but it’s tolerable.”
• B. “The nurse checked my vital signs earlier.”
• C. “I have not received any of my medications today.”
• D. “I am scheduled for therapy later today.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the patient states they have not received any medications, it requires immediate follow-up to prevent missed doses and complications. The other options do not pose an immediate risk to the patient. Option A indicates pain but is tolerable, which is a common postoperative experience. Option B states that vital signs were checked, indicating ongoing monitoring. Option D mentions therapy, which is a scheduled activity and not an urgent concern regarding medication administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor anastrozole for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse inform the client she may experience?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Muscle and joint pain
• C. Night sweats
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle and joint pain. Muscle and joint pain are common side effects of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These side effects can be managed with analgesics as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with anastrozole. Night sweats (choice C) are also not commonly reported with this medication. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a common side effect of anastrozole.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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