Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods.
• B. Sleep with a pillow under the residual limb.
• C. Elevate the limb continuously for the first 48 hours.
• D. Apply lotion to the residual limb daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can be used to help manage asthma symptoms during an acute asthma attack
• B. This medication should be taken before exercise and physical activity
• C. This medication should be taken regularly as prescribed without discontinuing abruptly
• D. This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Montelukast works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, reducing inflammation and mucus production, which helps prevent asthma attacks but is not used for acute treatment. It is important for the client to understand that montelukast should be taken regularly to manage asthma symptoms and should not be abruptly discontinued. Taking the medication before exercise is not a typical instruction for montelukast.

3. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

• A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old client who has slurred speech and reports a headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.

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