ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor for polyuria
- B. Monitor for diaphoresis
- C. Monitor for abdominal pain
- D. Monitor for thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.
2. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?
- A. Increase fluid intake
- B. Empty the bladder
- C. Avoid eating for 12 hours
- D. Take a sedative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Potassium levels
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.
4. A nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after a vaginal delivery and notes that the client's uterus is boggy and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Massage the uterus
- C. Administer oxytocin
- D. Encourage breastfeeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A boggy and displaced uterus is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting effectively. The priority intervention is to assist the client to void. By emptying the bladder, the uterus can return to midline and become firm. Massaging the uterus or administering oxytocin may be necessary but should come after addressing the bladder distention. Encouraging breastfeeding is important for uterine contraction but is not the priority in this situation.
5. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
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