ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Bleeding time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
2. A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “Exercise decreases the risk of hypoglycemia.”
- B. “I should skip my insulin if I don't eat.”
- C. “I can drink 4 oz of regular soda if my blood sugar is low.”
- D. “Oral diabetic medications do not lead to hypoglycemia; only insulin does.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
4. A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?
- A. Administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery
- B. Administer Rh immune globulin at the 6-week postpartum visit
- C. No Rh immune globulin is needed since this is the second pregnancy
- D. Both mother and baby need Rh immune globulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.
5. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client’s head while in bed during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients who have seizures are at risk for injury and aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the family to position the client on their side during a seizure to maintain a clear airway. Placing a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended, as it can lead to oral injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client’s head (Choice B) can obstruct the airway and increase the risk of aspiration. Administering diazepam orally (Choice C) is not typically done by family members during a seizure; this is usually prescribed by healthcare providers for specific situations.
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