ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Bleeding time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
2. A nurse enters a client’s room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Extinguish the fire
- B. Activate the fire alarm
- C. Evacuate the room
- D. Call the client’s family
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a fire emergency, the priority for the nurse is to ensure safety. The correct first action is to evacuate the room, following the RACE protocol, which stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. Activating the fire alarm alerts others, extinguishing the fire can escalate the situation if not done correctly, and calling the client's family is not a priority in this emergency scenario.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Advanced age
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Regular skin assessments
- D. Adequate hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer’s disease. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care to support the client’s cognitive function?
- A. Place a daily calendar in the kitchen
- B. Replace buttoned clothing with zippered items
- C. Replace the carpet with hardwood floors
- D. Create variation in the daily routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is essential to help clients with Alzheimer's stay oriented to time and maintain cognitive function. It supports their ability to recall the day, date, and upcoming events, promoting a sense of control over their environment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly target cognitive function support in clients with Alzheimer's disease. While replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items may aid in dressing independently, changing the flooring or introducing variation in the daily routine does not specifically address cognitive function support.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
- B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
- C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
- D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.
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