a nurse is providing dietary education to a client with cholecystitis who has been prescribed a low fat diet which of the following meal selections by
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.

2. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

3. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.

4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It should be taken with meals.' Metformin should be taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is actually associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken orally and not via injection. Choice D is also incorrect because metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia as a primary side effect.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

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