ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
- B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
- C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
- D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
2. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery tells the nurse, 'I see just fine and have decided to cancel my surgery.' Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Tell the patient they need the surgery
- B. Encourage the patient to express their thoughts
- C. Ignore the comment and proceed
- D. Insist the patient needs to proceed with the surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the patient to express their thoughts is the best response in this situation. It allows the patient to voice their concerns or reasons for canceling the surgery, which can help the healthcare team address any misunderstandings or fears the patient may have. Choices A and D are too directive and do not consider the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their care. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the patient's expressed decision and fails to address the underlying issue.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Meat and dairy products are eaten together
- B. Fasting occurs during Hanukkah
- C. Shellfish is eaten regularly
- D. Meat and dairy products are consumed separately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Meat and dairy products are consumed separately.' Kosher dietary laws prohibit the consumption of meat and dairy products together. Observing this separation is a key aspect of Jewish dietary practices. Choice A is incorrect as meat and dairy products are not eaten together in kosher dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as fasting does not typically occur during Hanukkah. Choice C is incorrect as shellfish is not eaten in kosher dietary practices due to being non-kosher.
4. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
- B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
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