Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
• D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

2. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest
• C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
• D. Apply powder frequently to the client’s skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born vaginally with vacuum extractor assistance. The nurse notes swelling over the newborn's head that crosses the suture line. The nurse should identify the swelling as which of the following findings?

• A. Nevus simplex
• B. Caput succedaneum
• C. Cephalohematoma
• D. Erythema toxicum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Caput succedaneum is the correct answer. It is the swelling of the soft tissues of the head that crosses suture lines, often resulting from pressure during delivery, especially with vacuum extraction. Nevus simplex (Choice A) is a pink or red birthmark that is flat and usually fades on its own. Cephalohematoma (Choice C) is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum, often caused by birth trauma. Erythema toxicum (Choice D) is a common rash in newborns that is benign and typically resolves on its own. In this case, the description of swelling over the newborn's head crossing the suture line is characteristic of caput succedaneum, which is a common finding in newborns after vaginal delivery.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

• A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
• C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
• D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

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