a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the te
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

3. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

5. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.

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