a nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has evidence of dyspnea bibasilar crackles and frothy sputum what dietary recommendations should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.

3. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

4. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of substance abuse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for withdrawal symptoms. This is a priority because individuals with a history of substance abuse are at risk of experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the substance is no longer used. Monitoring for withdrawal symptoms is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to manage any potential complications related to substance withdrawal. Encouraging social activities, scheduling regular follow-ups, and providing educational materials are also important aspects of care, but they are not as critical as monitoring for withdrawal symptoms in this immediate scenario.

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