ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?
- A. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch
- B. Wiping from front to back
- C. Using perfumed toilet paper
- D. Urinating after intercourse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of losartan. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used to lower blood pressure. Assessing the patient's blood pressure before administering losartan is crucial to ensure it is not already too low, which could lead to hypotension. Assessing heart rate (choice B) is important but not the priority when administering losartan. Serum potassium levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments, but they are not the primary concern before administering losartan.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.
5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being educated about their diet by a nurse. Which of the following food selections indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. A sandwich and a milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna on lettuce
- D. A three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rice with black beans. Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit protein intake to prevent the buildup of ammonia. Plant-based proteins are preferred over animal-based proteins in this condition. Rice with black beans provides a good balance of nutrients and is a suitable choice for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain animal-based proteins, which should be limited in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
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