ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.
3. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon to improve absorption
- B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
- C. Take on a full stomach
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose one day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.
4. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause weight gain
- B. It may increase seizure risk
- C. It is an SSRI
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?
- A. Elevate the affected extremity on two pillows
- B. Apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes
- C. Wrap the extremity with a compression dressing
- D. Assess sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.
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