in designing a program for young adults regarding safe sexual practices which strategy might reach the greatest number in the target group
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. When designing a program for young adults regarding safe sexual practices, which strategy might reach the greatest number in the target group?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Web-based applications are the most effective strategy for reaching young adults in the target group regarding safe sexual practices. Young adults today are highly engaged with mobile technology and the internet, making web-based applications the most accessible and convenient method to disseminate information. Print-based media like newspapers may not have the same reach and engagement among young adults. Television advertisements might reach a broader audience, but they may not be as targeted to the specific demographic of young adults. Brochures in kiosks in malls are less likely to reach a large number of young adults compared to web-based applications, which can be accessed anytime and anywhere through mobile devices.

2. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the knee-chest position to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. This position helps to prevent cord compression and improves fetal oxygenation. Administering oxytocin (Choice A) could worsen the situation by increasing contractions and potentially compressing the umbilical cord. Applying oxygen (Choice B) is not the priority in this emergency situation. Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (Choice C) is not appropriate as the immediate concern is relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

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