Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Sudden weight loss
• B. Regular contractions
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Vaginal spotting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

2. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
• C. Increase dietary potassium
• D. Encourage foods high in sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.

4. A nurse is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Decrease caloric intake to reduce weight gain
• B. Increase dietary fiber to prevent constipation
• C. Rise slowly when sitting up
• D. Take this medication each morning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rise slowly when sitting up.' Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A decrease in caloric intake to reduce weight gain, an increase in dietary fiber to prevent constipation, and taking the medication each morning are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of doxazosin.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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