a nurse is preparing to administer a measles mumps rubella mmr immunization to a child which is a contraindication for this vaccine
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.

2. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

4. A healthcare provider is providing education to a client about atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities. Monitoring for muscle pain is essential as it can be a sign of a serious side effect called rhabdomyolysis. While liver function tests are necessary before starting atorvastatin, checking them continuously may not be required. Avoiding sun exposure and reporting gastrointestinal symptoms are not directly associated with atorvastatin use.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.

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