a nurse is preparing to administer a measles mumps rubella mmr immunization to a child which is a contraindication for this vaccine
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

3. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

4. A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of prednisone. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone can cause weight gain and other side effects, so clients should be informed about these potential risks. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should not be stopped abruptly to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because prednisone can have various side effects. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone is usually prescribed with specific dosing instructions and should not be taken irregularly or only when symptoms occur.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An excessive high-pitched cry is a classic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from substances such as methadone. Neonates with neonatal abstinence syndrome often display irritability, tremors, and feeding difficulties. Hyporeactivity, acrocyanosis, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are not typical manifestations of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Hyporeactivity is more associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or sepsis, acrocyanosis is a common finding in newborns due to immature peripheral circulation, and a respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn.

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