ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit sodium intake
- C. Avoid potassium supplements
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Stimulate the newborn
- C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation
- D. Continue routine monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.
3. A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to lift their chin when swallowing
- B. Discourage the client from coughing during feedings
- C. Sit at or below the client’s eye level during feedings
- D. Talk with the client during feedings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sitting at or below the client’s eye level is important when feeding a client with dysphagia. This position allows the nurse to closely observe the client for any signs of difficulty with swallowing, which can help prevent aspiration. Instructing the client to lift their chin when swallowing (choice A) is not recommended for clients with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Discouraging the client from coughing during feedings (choice B) is also not correct, as coughing may be a protective mechanism to prevent aspiration. Talking with the client during feedings (choice D) may distract the client and interfere with their ability to focus on swallowing safely.
4. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:
- A. Scaly and red
- B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
- C. Firm and rubbery
- D. Brown with a wart-like texture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.
5. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
- A. A client with cystic fibrosis who has a productive cough and reports thirst
- B. A client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
- C. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 185 mg/dL
- D. A client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.
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