a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear a dosimeter badge. When caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant, the nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure. This badge helps measure the amount of radiation the nurse is exposed to during care. Choice A is incorrect because removing dirty linens after double-bagging is not directly related to managing radiation exposure. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific time limit on visitors mentioned in the context of a sealed radiation implant. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence supporting the need for family members to stay a specific distance away from the client.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

5. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

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