a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A client has been prescribed trazodone. Which of the following should be monitored?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. Trazodone is an antidepressant that can impact mood and behavior. Monitoring for changes in mood or behavior is crucial to assess the effectiveness and potential side effects of the medication. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not typically associated with trazodone use. While trazodone can affect liver function in some cases, monitoring liver function is not the primary concern compared to assessing mood changes. Trazodone can cause changes in heart rate in some patients, but the priority monitoring in this case should be related to its effects on mood.

3. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting is stable and the task is appropriate for delegation to an assistive personnel (AP). Choices A, B, and C involve clients with more complex care needs that require the expertise of a nurse. Choice A involves providing guidance with incentive spirometry, which requires specialized knowledge and assessment skills. Choice B involves a client who has just undergone a bronchoscopy, so close monitoring is essential to assess for any complications. Choice C involves a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is reporting chest discomfort, which could indicate a potential cardiac issue requiring immediate nursing assessment and intervention.

4. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

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