a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hr old which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

2. A charge nurse is discussing the use of applying ice to a client’s injured knee with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following is a benefit of this treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased capillary permeability. Ice application helps decrease capillary permeability, which in turn reduces swelling and inflammation at the injury site. This vasoconstriction effect helps to limit the extent of the injury. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Applying ice locally does not produce a systemic analgesic effect but rather a localized numbing effect. It does not increase metabolism but rather slows down metabolic processes in the affected area. Additionally, ice application causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.

4. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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