a nurse is teaching a client about the use of metformin which of the following should be included
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.

2. A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

5. While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.

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