ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- D. aPTT 30 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.
2. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
3. A nurse is admitted to a psychiatric unit and fails to follow her medication regimen. What does this behavior indicate?
- A. Early cognitive impairment
- B. Lack of motivation
- C. Lack of health literacy
- D. Worsening health state
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Lack of health literacy.' The nurse's inability to follow the medication regimen suggests she may lack health literacy, meaning she may not fully understand how to manage her own health care. Choice A, 'Early cognitive impairment,' is not supported by the information provided in the question as there is no mention of cognitive decline. Choice B, 'Lack of motivation,' is less likely as the behavior is more indicative of a knowledge deficit rather than a lack of drive. Choice D, 'Worsening health state,' is also less likely as the behavior described does not directly imply a worsening health condition but rather a misunderstanding or lack of knowledge on managing health.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Start intravenous antibiotics
- C. Perform a complete assessment
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.
5. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It can cause weight gain
- B. It should be taken with meals
- C. It is an injectable medication
- D. It can cause hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It should be taken with meals.' Metformin should be taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is actually associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken orally and not via injection. Choice D is also incorrect because metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia as a primary side effect.
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