Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• D. aPTT 30 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Irrigate the catheter
• B. Assess the patency of the catheter
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Low potassium
• D. Low magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

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