Nursing Elites

1. An antepartum client is Rh negative and understands that she will receive a RhoGAM injection during her pregnancy. The client asks the nurse if she will also receive a RhoGAM injection after the birth of her baby. The client will receive RhoGAM after the birth if blood tests are:

• A. Mother Rh positive; baby Rh negative
• B. Mother Rh negative; Coombs positive; baby Rh negative
• C. Mother Rh positive; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive
• D. Mother Rh negative; Coombs negative; baby Rh positive

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood. RhoGAM is administered to prevent the mother's immune system from becoming sensitized to Rh-positive blood. Therefore, the mother, who is Rh negative, will receive RhoGAM after birth if the baby is Rh positive and both the mother and baby have negative Coombs tests. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not match the criteria for RhoGAM administration in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.

3. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
• B. Take the medication with food
• C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

5. A nurse enters a client’s room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Extinguish the fire
• B. Activate the fire alarm
• C. Evacuate the room
• D. Call the client’s family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the priority for the nurse is to ensure safety. The correct first action is to evacuate the room, following the RACE protocol, which stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. Activating the fire alarm alerts others, extinguishing the fire can escalate the situation if not done correctly, and calling the client's family is not a priority in this emergency scenario.

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