ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which of the following should the nurse document?
- A. Cephalohematoma
- B. Caput succedaneum
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Molding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma during birth and typically resolves on its own. Choice B, caput succedaneum, is characterized by diffuse edema over a newborn's scalp that crosses suture lines. Choice C, subdural hematoma, is a more serious condition involving bleeding between the dura mater and the brain. Choice D, molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal. Therefore, the nurse should document cephalohematoma in this scenario as it aligns with the description of a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line.
2. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you have any active lesions?
- B. Have your membranes ruptured?
- C. How far apart are your contractions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.
3. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. History of fibroids
- B. Early menopause
- C. Endometriosis
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
- D. aPTT 30 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should not be taken with nitrates
- B. Monitor for headaches
- C. It is a prescription medication
- D. It may have side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.
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