a nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin which of the following should be included
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.

2. A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.

4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

5. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

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