ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.
2. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?
- A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
- B. Tenderness present during menstruation
- C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
- D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.
3. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?
- A. Redness at the site
- B. Warmth around the site
- C. Edema
- D. Pain at the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.
5. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?
- A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
- B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
- C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
- D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.
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