Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be assessed first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first before administering nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting. Assessing blood pressure before administration helps determine if the patient's blood pressure is within the acceptable range for nitroglycerin administration. Heart rate, pain level, and respiratory rate are also important assessments, but blood pressure should take precedence due to the vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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