ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
- A. Assess blood pressure
- B. Check heart rate
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Review the medication order
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the heart rate first before administering digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that directly affects the heart, so it is crucial to ensure that the heart rate is within the appropriate range before giving the dose. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, administering digoxin could lead to toxicity. Assessing blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not the first priority when preparing to administer digoxin. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice C) is also crucial for patients on digoxin, but it is not the initial step. Reviewing the medication order (Choice D) is necessary but can be done after checking the heart rate.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. PT and INR
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
4. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
5. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
- B. It is safe to give to children
- C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.
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