ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in magnesium
- B. Take furosemide with food
- C. Eat foods that are rich in potassium
- D. Expect a decrease in blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.
2. A nurse is providing education on the use of corticosteroids. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
- B. Avoid abrupt discontinuation
- C. Long-term use may have risks
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of hyperglycemia when educating on corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels, making it essential to watch for hyperglycemia, especially in diabetic patients. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids should not be abruptly stopped due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroids are associated with various adverse effects, making long-term use risky. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not typically a primary concern directly related to corticosteroid use.
3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Check the newborn's temperature every 4 hours
- B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin every 4 hours
- C. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours
- D. Reposition the newborn every 2 to 3 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.
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