a 65 year old client is taking methylprednisolone what pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

3. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.

4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You may experience diarrhea with this medication.' Diarrhea is a common side effect of metformin, particularly when initiating the medication. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential side effect. Option A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is not directly related to metformin use. Option C is incorrect as muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin and does not warrant stopping the medication.

5. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

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