ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?
- A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
- B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
- C. Fortification of bones.
- D. Suppression of candidiasis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.
2. A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor?
- A. Hypnosis focuses on biofeedback as a relaxation technique
- B. Hypnosis promotes increased control of pain perception during contractions
- C. Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor
- D. Hypnosis provides instruction to minimize pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hypnosis during labor helps the client gain increased control over her perception of pain, allowing for better pain management during contractions. Choice A is incorrect because hypnosis and biofeedback are distinct techniques. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic touch and hypnosis are different modalities. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis does not simply provide instruction to minimize pain, but rather helps the individual control their perception of pain.
3. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
- B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
- C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
- D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.
4. A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wash your nipples with soap after each feeding.
- B. Place your baby to your breast for 5 minutes every 4 hours.
- C. Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.
- D. Give your newborn 30 mL of water between feedings.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.' Six or more wet diapers per day is an indicator that the newborn is receiving adequate breast milk, making this an important part of breastfeeding education. Choice A is incorrect because washing nipples with soap after each feeding can lead to dryness and cracking. Choice B is incorrect as babies should nurse on demand rather than on a strict schedule of 5 minutes every 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as giving water to a newborn between feedings is not recommended and can interfere with breastfeeding.
5. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?
- A. Heart rate 120/min
- B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
- D. Skin turgor is normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.
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