a 65 year old client is taking methylprednisolone what pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

4. A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor anastrozole for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse inform the client she may experience?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle and joint pain. Muscle and joint pain are common side effects of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These side effects can be managed with analgesics as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with anastrozole. Night sweats (choice C) are also not commonly reported with this medication. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a common side effect of anastrozole.

5. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

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