a 65 year old client is taking methylprednisolone what pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A client with Ménière’s disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière’s disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. Limiting sodium helps to reduce fluid retention, which in turn decreases the manifestations of Ménière’s disease. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may be necessary during acute episodes but is not a long-term solution. Restricting fluid intake (Choice B) to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying issue of fluid retention associated with Ménière’s disease. Administering aspirin (Choice C) is not recommended for Ménière’s disease as it can worsen symptoms.

3. A nurse in an urgent-care clinic is collecting admission history from a client who is 16 weeks gestation and has bacterial vaginosis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clinical findings are associated with this infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis often presents with a profuse, milky white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, without significant inflammation, hematuria, or fever. Choice A, frequency, and dysuria are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, hematuria, is associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney problems. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a typical symptom of bacterial vaginosis.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ampicillin is the correct choice for treating group B streptococcus infections in pregnant women during labor to prevent neonatal infection. Group B streptococcus is commonly treated with penicillin or ampicillin; therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for group B streptococcus. Ceftriaxone is not the preferred antibiotic for this infection during labor. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like group B streptococcus.

5. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.

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