Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Limit the client’s fluid intake to 1500 mL per day
• B. Massage the affected extremity to relieve pain
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity
• D. Elevate the client’s affected extremity when in bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevating the affected extremity helps improve venous return, reduces edema, alleviates discomfort, and promotes healing in clients with DVT. Limiting fluid intake can be detrimental as adequate hydration is important for circulation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge clots and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, which is not recommended for DVT as it can impede blood flow further.

3. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

4. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

• A. Cesarean birth
• B. Vaginal birth
• C. Anemia
• D. Multiparity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

5. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rho(D) immune globulin
• B. A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness
• C. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output
• D. A client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.

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