Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

2. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who has a new ileostomy. The nurse should recognize that the teaching has been effective when the client states:

• A. I will make sure my medications are enteric-coated
• B. My stoma will drain liquid continuously
• C. I will change my pouch system every two weeks
• D. My stoma size will stay the same after it heals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a client with an ileostomy states that their stoma will drain liquid continuously, it indicates an understanding of the expected outcome. In an ileostomy, the stoma continuously drains liquid stool as it bypasses the large intestine where water is absorbed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated, changing the pouch system every two weeks, and expecting the stoma size to remain the same after healing are not accurate statements related to an ileostomy.

3. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

• A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
• B. Tenderness present during menstruation
• C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
• D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a prescription for PRN aspirin from the provider.
• B. Massage the injection site thoroughly following administration.
• C. Instruct the client that they cannot breastfeed while receiving heparin.
• D. Administer the injection in the client's abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should administer the injection in the abdomen, as this is a common site for subcutaneous heparin administration. Massaging the injection site can lead to bruising or discomfort and should be avoided. Instructing the client not to breastfeed while on heparin is inaccurate, as heparin does not pass into breast milk in significant amounts. Aspirin is contraindicated for clients on heparin due to the increased risk of bleeding, so requesting a prescription for PRN aspirin would not be appropriate in this situation.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Restrict protein intake to less than 40 g/day
• B. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
• C. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 mL/hr
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate twice per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.

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