a nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric ng tube connected to low intermittent suction which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abdominal rigidity can indicate a serious complication, such as a blockage or infection, requiring immediate intervention to determine if the NG tube is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a malfunctioning NG tube. Greenish-yellow drainage fluid may be normal, an aspirate pH of 3 is within the expected range for gastric contents, and air bubbles in the NG tube are not abnormal as long as they are moving.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels, can potentially cause liver damage as a side effect. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any abnormalities early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to directly impact potassium levels, blood glucose levels, or serum calcium levels. While these parameters may be monitored for other reasons, the priority when administering atorvastatin is to monitor liver function due to the risk of hepatotoxicity.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.

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