Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Advanced age
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Regular skin assessments
• D. Adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

2. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit physical activity
• B. Monitor fetal movements daily
• C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.

3. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which type of immunity?

• A. Innate immunity
• B. Passive immunity
• C. Acquired immunity
• D. Natural immunity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity occurs when an individual is given a vaccine or immunization to develop antibodies. This type of immunity is specific and develops after exposure to an antigen. Innate immunity (choice A) is the body's natural defense system present at birth. Passive immunity (choice B) is temporary immunity passed from one individual to another. Natural immunity (choice D) refers to immunity that is not gained through medical intervention or deliberate exposure.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Fluid overload
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

5. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

• A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.
• B. Take the medication only if you feel nauseous.
• C. Avoid drinking any fluids while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.

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