Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Advanced age
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Regular skin assessments
• D. Adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

2. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions is most important?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels.
• C. Change the oxygen tubing daily.
• D. Assist with frequent position changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is the most important intervention in this scenario. It ensures that the client is receiving adequate oxygenation, which is crucial for a client with pneumonia. By monitoring saturation levels, the nurse can promptly identify any oxygenation issues and adjust the oxygen delivery if necessary. Encouraging fluid intake, changing oxygen tubing daily, and assisting with frequent position changes are also important aspects of care for a client with pneumonia, but they are not as critical as monitoring oxygen saturation levels in ensuring immediate respiratory support.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.

4. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

5. A client has been prescribed metformin. What should be included in the teaching?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. Take it with food
• C. It is an insulin
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take metformin with food. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is not typically associated with weight gain. Choice C is wrong as metformin is not an insulin but a medication that helps control blood sugar levels. Choice D is also incorrect as metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia.

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