ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. We will place the baby on its back to sleep
- B. We will give the baby a pacifier at bedtime
- C. We will keep the baby's crib free of blankets and toys
- D. We will leave the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The client has a productive cough and is started on airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client.
- B. Place the client in a semi-private room.
- C. Have the client wear a surgical mask during meals.
- D. Use a negative pressure air filtration system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client with TB. This is crucial to prevent the nurse from inhaling the airborne particles that spread the infection. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in a semi-private room does not address the protection of the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as having the client wear a surgical mask during meals is not sufficient to protect the nurse during all interactions. Choice D is incorrect as using a negative pressure air filtration system is more applicable to airborne infection isolation rooms in healthcare settings and not a standard intervention for nurses caring for a single client with TB.
3. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Increased energy levels
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.
4. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
- B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
- C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
- D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?
- A. Abnormal mouth movements
- B. Inability to stand without assistance
- C. Paralysis of the right arm
- D. Loss of appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.
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