ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
- A. Skin turgor displays tenting
- B. Flat anterior fontanel
- C. Cool, mottled skin
- D. Hyperpnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Flaring of the nostrils
- B. Normal respiratory rate
- C. Clear lung sounds
- D. Decreased work of breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrict protein intake to less than 40 g/day
- B. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
- C. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 mL/hr
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate twice per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Vomiting
- C. Drainage from the ear
- D. Unequal pupils
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.
5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urinary output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.
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