Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
• B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
• C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
• D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
• B. Nasal flaring
• C. Heart rate 158/min
• D. One void since birth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.

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