a nurse is admitting a client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 which of the following questions is most appropriate to a
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe pain effectively. In this case, the client's stable respiratory rate of 14/min indicates that it is safe to administer an opioid for pain relief. Promethazine (choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not the first choice for severe pain management. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not be potent enough for severe pain relief associated with osteoporosis. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used as a first-line medication for severe pain.

4. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.

5. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

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