Nursing Elites

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Report a decrease in urine output.
• D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

5. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

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