Nursing Elites

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn
• B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water
• C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV
• D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

4. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Eat foods served hot
• B. Drink liquids between meals
• C. Eat dry cereal
• D. Choose foods with a strong aroma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Hypothermia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Lethargy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid storm, which is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, hypertension is an expected finding. Other common manifestations include tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. Hypothermia (choice A) is not expected in a thyroid storm as the body temperature is usually elevated due to increased metabolic rate. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typical in a thyroid storm; instead, tachycardia is more common. Lethargy (choice D) is not a typical finding in a thyroid storm, as clients are usually agitated due to excess thyroid hormone levels.

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