a nurse is admitting a client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 which of the following questions is most appropriate to a
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

3. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

5. A 55-year-old client has levothyroxine ordered. Which of the below past medical history concerns may contraindicate with her medication management of hypothyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with a history of osteoporosis should be carefully monitored when prescribed levothyroxine. Chronic overtreatment can cause increased bone loss, which raises the risk of fractures, especially in older adults. Thyroid hormone levels should be regularly monitored to avoid this complication. Scleroderma (choice B), asthma (choice C), and peripheral vascular disease (choice D) are not known to contraindicate the use of levothyroxine for hypothyroidism.

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