ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare the equipment necessary to initiate an amnioinfusion
- B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather face mask
- C. Discontinue the infusion of oxytocin
- D. Place the client in a left lateral position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased urination
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Fatigue
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
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