Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Edema
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Weight gain
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself once a week.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the evening.
• C. I will limit my fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• D. I will call my doctor if I notice swelling in my feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Swelling in the feet can indicate worsening heart failure due to fluid retention, and clients should report this to their healthcare provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weighing once a week may not provide timely information on fluid retention, timing of diuretic medication is usually advised in the morning to prevent nocturia, and limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be appropriate for all clients with heart failure.

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