Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium levels
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?

• A. Check potassium levels
• B. Assess blood glucose levels
• C. Monitor respiratory rate
• D. Administer with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?

• A. Client's allergy to eggs
• B. Client's vaccination history
• C. Client's weight
• D. Client's blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client's vaccination history. Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine, it is essential to verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. This helps in preventing unnecessary vaccinations and ensures the appropriate timing and dosage. Option A, the client's allergy to eggs, is not directly related to administering the hepatitis B vaccine. Option C, the client's weight, and option D, the client's blood pressure, are not factors that need to be specifically verified before administering the hepatitis B vaccine.

5. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a designated stethoscope for the toddler
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the toddler
• C. Place the toddler in a negative pressure room
• D. Remove the disposable gown before leaving the toddler's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

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