a nurse is caring for a client prescribed furosemide which of the following is a potential side effect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

2. When teaching about safety risks for adolescents, what should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating about safety risks for adolescents, it is crucial to address the impact of peer influence on engaging in high-risk behaviors, which can result in injuries. Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are known to sometimes take risks and not always follow rules. Choice C is incorrect as injuries among adolescents can also happen outside of sports activities. Choice D is incorrect as adolescents may not always be fully aware of the dangers of substance use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.

4. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

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