Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Assist the client to sit or lie down.
• C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
• D. Apply nasal oxygen at a rate of 2 L/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to assist in the care of a client who has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which is the priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output.
• B. Check the client's surgical dressing.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority action post-CABG surgery to monitor for signs of cerebral hypoxia or other complications that require immediate intervention. Changes in the client's level of consciousness can indicate neurological deterioration, which is critical to address promptly in this postoperative period. Monitoring urine output, checking surgical dressing, and measuring blood pressure are important aspects of postoperative care but assessing the client's level of consciousness takes precedence as it provides crucial information about the client's neurological status and the need for urgent intervention.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. The nurse should check which parameter before administering the medication?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Heart rate
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a thiazide diuretic to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so assessing the client's blood pressure prior to administration helps to monitor the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client's safety. Checking the serum potassium level (Choice A), heart rate (Choice C), or serum sodium level (Choice D) are also important parameters in the care of a client on a thiazide diuretic, but the priority assessment before administering the medication is the blood pressure to evaluate the drug's effectiveness in managing hypertension.

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