Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. The healthcare provider notes this rhythm on the client's cardiac monitor. The healthcare provider next reports that the client is experiencing which heart rhythm?

• A. Normal sinus
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Sinus bradycardia
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can lead to poor blood flow due to ineffective contractions of the atria. Sinus bradycardia (Choice C) is a regular but slow heart rhythm originating from the sinus node. Normal sinus rhythm (Choice A) refers to a regular heartbeat originating from the sinus node. Ventricular fibrillation (Choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles.

4. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris returns to the nursing unit after experiencing an angioplasty. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the procedure and home care measures. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I am considering cutting my workload.
• B. I need to cut down on cigarette smoking.
• C. I am so relieved that my heart is repaired.
• D. I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adhering to dietary restrictions is crucial in managing heart health post-angioplasty. Choice A focuses on workload, choice B mentions smoking, and choice C reflects relief about heart repair, which are important but do not directly relate to post-angioplasty care instructions.

5. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

• A. Albumin
• B. Calcium
• C. Glucose
• D. Alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

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