Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Limit your fluid intake to avoid fluid overload.
• B. Increase your potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges.
• C. Weigh yourself once a week to monitor for fluid retention.
• D. Take the medication at night to avoid frequent urination during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to increase potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges. Furosemide can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. By increasing potassium intake through diet, the client can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance and maintain overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting fluid intake is not the appropriate instruction, as furosemide is a diuretic that already helps in fluid management. Weighing once a week is not as crucial as monitoring potassium levels, and taking the medication at night does not impact potassium levels.

3. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to the drug's effect on slowing down the heart rate excessively. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to visual disturbances caused by digoxin, but it is not a defining sign of toxicity. Dry cough (Choice D) is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the early signs of digoxin toxicity to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate interventions promptly.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should take NSAIDs for pain relief.'
• B. 'I should avoid drinking alcohol.'
• C. 'I should eat small, frequent meals.'
• D. 'I should drink milk to coat my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding alcohol is crucial in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps prevent irritation and further damage to the stomach lining. Alcohol can worsen symptoms and hinder the healing process in individuals with this condition. Choice A is incorrect because NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Choice C is a correct dietary recommendation for managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce stomach acid secretion and promotes healing. Choice D is incorrect as milk may temporarily soothe ulcer pain, but it can stimulate acid production and worsen symptoms in the long run.

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