Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect of isoniazid due to liver damage. It is essential to monitor for signs of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, while the client is on this medication. Diarrhea is a common side effect of isoniazid, but it is not as serious as liver damage. Blurred vision and hearing loss are not typically associated with isoniazid use.

2. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of pain in the legs while walking. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to help alleviate the client's symptoms?

• A. Walk until the pain becomes severe, then rest.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Elevate the legs on pillows while resting.
• D. Take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances. This instruction helps alleviate symptoms in clients with peripheral artery disease (PAD) by allowing them to manage pain and discomfort more effectively. Option A is incorrect as waiting for the pain to become severe before resting can exacerbate symptoms. Option B, performing leg exercises while sitting, may not directly address the issue of pain during walking. Option C, elevating the legs on pillows while resting, is beneficial for other conditions like edema but may not specifically help alleviate pain while walking in PAD clients.

3. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

4. The healthcare provider is reinforcing instructions to a client with heart failure who is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Processed cheese
• D. Pickled vegetables

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fresh vegetables are a suitable choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium and provide essential nutrients. In contrast, canned soup, processed cheese, and pickled vegetables tend to be high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with heart failure and on a low-sodium diet. Fresh vegetables are also rich in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, making them a healthier option compared to the other choices provided.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

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