ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is a pain reliever
- B. Monitor for signs of infection
- C. It can be taken without food
- D. It is safe to use during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.
2. A newborn demonstrates respiratory distress, and routine suctioning with the bulb syringe is unsuccessful. What is the next nursing intervention?
- A. Initiate chest compressions
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Suction with a mechanical device
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When routine suctioning with a bulb syringe is unsuccessful in a newborn demonstrating respiratory distress, the next appropriate nursing intervention is to suction with a mechanical device. This method ensures effective removal of any airway obstruction. Initiating chest compressions (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the primary concern is airway clearance. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, but addressing the airway obstruction should take precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be considered after attempting mechanical suction if the newborn's condition does not improve.
3. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Maintain IV access
- B. Obtain the client’s vital signs
- C. Contact the provider
- D. Stop the transfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.
4. A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which of the following should the nurse document?
- A. Cephalohematoma
- B. Caput succedaneum
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Molding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma during birth and typically resolves on its own. Choice B, caput succedaneum, is characterized by diffuse edema over a newborn's scalp that crosses suture lines. Choice C, subdural hematoma, is a more serious condition involving bleeding between the dura mater and the brain. Choice D, molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal. Therefore, the nurse should document cephalohematoma in this scenario as it aligns with the description of a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line.
5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Normal heart rate
- D. Elevated oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
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