a nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home the nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services when a
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has yellow-tinged skin. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yellow-tinged skin (jaundice) in a newborn can indicate hyperbilirubinemia. The priority action is to assess the infant's bilirubin levels to determine the severity of the jaundice and the need for further interventions, such as phototherapy. Initiating phototherapy (choice B) is premature without knowing the actual bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's temperature (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging breastfeeding (choice D) is beneficial but not the priority when dealing with jaundice in a newborn.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for muscle pain.' Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities, so clients should be monitored for these side effects. Choice B is incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, not an anticoagulant.

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