a nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.

2. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administration, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when left with an unused portion of a narcotic medication is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. This procedure ensures accountability and proper disposal of controlled substances. Choice A is incorrect as discarding in the trash can lead to potential misuse or environmental harm. Choice B is incorrect because returning controlled substances to the pharmacy is not the appropriate method for disposal. Choice D is incorrect as storing the medication for future use is not permitted with controlled substances.

4. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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