a nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

4. A client is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Omeprazole can cause hypomagnesemia, a condition characterized by low magnesium levels in the blood. Monitoring magnesium levels is crucial to detect and address this potential adverse effect. Liver function (Choice A) is not typically affected by omeprazole. Blood glucose (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not directly impacted by omeprazole administration. Therefore, magnesium levels (Choice B) are the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a client prescribed omeprazole.

5. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

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