what are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection and electrolyte imbalance are common complications of TPN. Infection can occur due to the invasive nature of TPN, which provides a direct route for pathogens. Electrolyte imbalances can arise from the composition of the TPN solution or improper monitoring. Hyperglycemia and sepsis (Choice B) are potential complications but are not as directly associated with TPN as infection and electrolyte imbalance. Kidney failure and hypovolemia (Choice C) are less common complications of TPN. Fluid overload and liver damage (Choice D) are potential complications but are not as frequently observed as infection and electrolyte imbalance.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care for a client undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. Changing the tubing at regular intervals helps reduce the risk of infection associated with central venous catheters. Monitoring electrolyte levels daily (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN. Weighing the client daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring fluid status but not directly related to TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels every 6 hours (Choice C) is essential for clients receiving TPN, but changing the tubing is a more critical intervention to prevent infections.

3. What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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