Nursing Elites

1. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

• A. Infection and electrolyte imbalance
• B. Hyperglycemia and sepsis
• C. Kidney failure and hypovolemia
• D. Fluid overload and liver damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection and electrolyte imbalance are common complications of TPN. Infection can occur due to the invasive nature of TPN, which provides a direct route for pathogens. Electrolyte imbalances can arise from the composition of the TPN solution or improper monitoring. Hyperglycemia and sepsis (Choice B) are potential complications but are not as directly associated with TPN as infection and electrolyte imbalance. Kidney failure and hypovolemia (Choice C) are less common complications of TPN. Fluid overload and liver damage (Choice D) are potential complications but are not as frequently observed as infection and electrolyte imbalance.

2. A client is having difficulty voiding after removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse do?

• A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
• B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
• C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
• D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This action helps stimulate voiding post-catheterization by promoting relaxation and providing sensory input. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the immediate intervention needed for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue of post-catheterization voiding difficulty. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate and can lead to dehydration, which is not helpful in promoting voiding.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
• B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
• C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
• D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is being taught about nonstress testing. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This test will determine the length of your cervix.
• B. You will have your blood pressure taken frequently during the test.
• C. You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.
• D. This test will take about 5 minutes to complete.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a nonstress test, the client is required to press a handheld button whenever fetal movement is felt, which is then recorded on the monitor. This action helps assess the baby's heart rate in response to its movements, providing valuable information about the baby's well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the nonstress test does not involve determining the length of the cervix, monitoring blood pressure, or being completed in 5 minutes. These aspects are not part of the nonstress testing procedure and are unrelated to the purpose of the test.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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