a nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarif
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1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

2. A client who is immobile needs interventions to prevent contractures. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an orthotic to the client's foot is the appropriate intervention to prevent contractures in an immobile client. An orthotic helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the development of contractures by keeping the foot in the correct position. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a trochanter wedge, towel roll under the neck, and pillow under the knees are not specific interventions for preventing contractures in an immobile client.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

4. What are the early signs of DVT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leg pain, swelling, and redness are early signs of DVT. DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) is a condition where blood clots form in deep veins, commonly in the legs. These clots can cause symptoms like pain, swelling, and redness in the affected leg. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms more commonly associated with other conditions like pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath and high fever), respiratory issues (cough and chest pain), and cardiovascular problems (decreased oxygen saturation and low blood pressure), respectively. Therefore, they are not indicative of early signs of DVT.

5. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

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