Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

2. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection and is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Creatinine.
• B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
• C. White blood cell count.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring creatinine levels helps the nurse detect any potential kidney damage. Choice B, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), is not typically affected by gentamicin. Choice C, White blood cell count, is not directly related to gentamicin adverse effects. Choice D, Serum glucose, is not specifically monitored for gentamicin adverse effects.

5. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

• A. I will breastfeed every 4 hours.
• B. I will feed my baby from each breast for 5 minutes.
• C. I will use both breasts at each feeding.
• D. I will pump my breasts if my baby does not wake up to feed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

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