Nursing Elites

1. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Oatmeal
• B. Red meat
• C. Bananas
• D. Whole grains

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener is essential to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could result in bleeding for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to the management of thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers (choice B) is more relevant for clients with a compromised immune system. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent foodborne illnesses, but it is not directly related to thrombocytopenia.

3. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
• C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
• D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.

4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which of the following actions by the nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Stands with feet shoulder-width apart when lifting a client up in bed.
• B. Raises the client's knees before pulling the client up in bed.
• C. Uses a mechanical lift to move a client from bed to chair.
• D. Places a gait belt around the client's waist before assisting the client to stand.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a mechanical lift is an appropriate ergonomic technique as it reduces the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client by promoting safe client handling practices. Choice A is incorrect as standing with feet shoulder-width apart provides better balance and stability during lifting. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's knees is not directly related to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect as placing a gait belt around the client's waist is a safety measure but does not specifically demonstrate an understanding of ergonomic principles.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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