Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in the patient's blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications such as worsening of the pulmonary embolism or development of new clots. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary to support the patient's oxygenation, but anticoagulants take precedence as they target the underlying cause of the pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer IV dextrose
• B. Administer oral glucose
• C. Monitor blood sugar levels
• D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

4. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?

• A. Varicella vaccine.
• B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
• C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
• D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.

5. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Drink a glass of milk with each meal.
• C. Lie down after meals.
• D. Drink plenty of fluids with meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.

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