ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in the patient's blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications such as worsening of the pulmonary embolism or development of new clots. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary to support the patient's oxygenation, but anticoagulants take precedence as they target the underlying cause of the pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
3. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. What symptom should the nurse expect?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Decreased frequency of urination.
- C. Enuresis.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enuresis. Enuresis, which refers to involuntary urination, is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in children. Periorbital edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome. Decreased frequency of urination (choice B) is not typically seen in urinary tract infections, as these infections often present with increased frequency. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical symptom of a urinary tract infection.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
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