Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
• B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?

• A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
• B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
• C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

• A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
• B. Hyperactive reflexes.
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
• D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

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